My reply to Aquinas: Whether Christ's passion is to be attributed to His Godhead?
Whether Christ's passion is to be attributed to His Godhead? Aquinas’ reply 1: T he Lord of glory is said to be crucified, not as the Lord of glory , but as a man capable of suffering. My reply to Aquinas: saying the Lord of glory has the capacity of suffering then makes the Lord of glory as being potentially able to suffer. But according to Aquinas, God has no potency. Therefore, this reply of his is inconsistent with what he says elsewhere. Aquinas reply 2: Christ's death being, as it were, God's death"—namely, by union in Person—"destroyed death"; since He who suffered "was both God and man . For God's Nature was not wounded, nor did It undergo any change by those sufferings." My reply: Maybe what Aquinas meant is that God and man considered conjunctively suffered, but God, considered apart from man, didn’t suffer. But this is confusing. Is Jesus God? Yes. Did Jesus suffer? Yes. Can God suffer? No. This is outright contradictory. If Aq...