justification

 

Second Council of Orange (AD 529):

CANON 18. “That grace is not preceded by merit.  Recompense is due to good works if they are performed; but grace, to which we have no claim, precedes them, to enable them to be done.”

Council of Trent on Justification:

“but we are therefore said to be justified freely, because that none of those things which precede justification-whether faith or works-merit the grace itself of justification. For, if it be a grace, it is not now by works, otherwise, as the same Apostle says, grace is no more grace.”

Efficient cause: “a merciful God who washes and sanctifies gratuitously, signing, and anointing with the holy Spirit of promise, who is the pledge of our inheritance”

Meritorious cause: “His most beloved only-begotten, our Lord Jesus Christ, who, when we were enemies, for the exceeding charity wherewith he loved us, merited Justification for us by His most holy Passion on the wood of the cross, and made satisfaction for us unto God the Father”

Instrumental cause: “the sacrament of baptism, which is the sacrament of faith, without which (faith) no man was ever justified”

Formal cause: “the justice of God, not that whereby He Himself is just, but that whereby He maketh us just, that, to wit, with which we being endowed by Him, are renewed in the spirit of our mind, and we are not only reputed, but are truly called, and are, just, receiving justice within us, each one according to his own measure, which the Holy Ghost distributes to every one as He wills, and according to each one’s proper disposition and co-operation”

Final cause: “final cause indeed is the glory of God and of Jesus Christ, and the life everlasting”

“For faith, unless hope and charity be added thereto, neither unites man perfectly with Christ, nor makes him a living member of His body”

“when they beg for the faith which bestows life everlasting, which, without hope and charity, faith cannot bestow”

Canon 9 says, “If anyone says that the sinner is justified by faith alone, meaning that [1] nothing else is required to cooperate in order to obtain the grace of justification, and [2] that it is not in any way necessary that he be prepared and disposed by the action of his own will, let him be anathema.” 

Romans 3:1-31  [TORAH vv. 1-4, 19-22, 27-31]  [MORAL LAW vv. 5-18, 23-26]  [MY OWN WORDS]

[TORAH] Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the value of circumcision? 2 Much in every way. To begin with, the Jews are entrusted with the oracles of God. 3 What if some were unfaithful? Does their faithlessness nullify the faithfulness of God? 4 By no means! Let God be true though every man be false, as it is written,

“That thou mayest be justified in thy words,
and prevail when thou art judged.”

[MORAL LAW] 5 But if our wickedness serves to show the justice of God, what shall we say? That God is unjust to inflict wrath on us? (I speak in a human way.) [CONTINUES IN ROMANS 9:22-23] 6 By no means! For then how could God judge the world? 7 But if through my falsehood God’s truthfulness abounds to his glory, why am I still being condemned as a sinner? 8 And why not do evil that good may come?—as some people slanderously charge us with saying. Their condemnation is just.

None Is Righteous

9 What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all; for I [lit. “We”] have already charged [Greek: “proaitiaomai” = to accuse beforehand]that all men, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin [WHEN? Romans 2:1 “you” and 2:17 “yourself a Jew”], 10 as it is written:

“None is righteous, no, not one;

11 

no one understands, no one seeks for God.

12 

All have turned aside, together they have gone wrong;
no one does good, not even one.”

13 

“Their throat is an open grave,
they use their tongues to deceive.”
“The venom of asps is under their lips.”

14 

“Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness.”

15 

“Their feet are swift to shed blood,

16 

in their paths are ruin and misery,

17 

and the way of peace they do not know.”

18 

“There is no fear of God before their eyes.”

[TORAH] 19 Now [Greek: “de,” which is a connective or adversative {opposition} particle] we know that whatever the law [First instance of “law” in Romans 3 so we have to find out what it is] says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God. 20 For no human being will be justified in his sight by works of the law, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.

Righteousness through Faith

21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from law, although the law and the prophets bear witness to it, 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction; [MORAL LAW] 23 since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God put forward as an expiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins; 26 it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies him who has faith in Jesus.

27 Then what becomes of our [Jews] boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On the principle of works? No, but on the principle of faith. 28 For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, 30 since God is one; and he will justify the circumcised on the ground of their faith and the uncircumcised through their faith. 31 Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.

ASK: Are Gentiles “under the law” (Romans 1:19) or “under the power of sin? (Romans 1:19)

Prot: Under the power of sin since only Jews are under the law

Reply: Then v19-20 is about Torah.

Obj: James 2:24 is about works before men, that’s why james says, “I by my works will show you my faith” (v18), but not works before god.

Ans: (1) he doesn’t say dead in the sight of men, he says faith “itself” (v17) is dead apart from works, (2) v14 says, “if a man says he has faith but has not works? Can his faith save him?” which indicates this works that’s about to proceed concerns before god and salvation (3) “body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead” (v26) shows that they necessarily go together, there’s no such a living thing as faith apart from works, otherwise it would be like a body apart from the spirit, which is not living at all, (4) if in the only other 3 times when james uses the word save (sozo), one interprets it as salvation saving, then it is likely this is the usage as well, and (5) v15 about “without giving them the things needed for the body” is in the context of matthew 25 where jesus says to clothe the naked and feed the hungry, which would “inherit the kingdom prepared for you” (matthew 25:34) “for I was hungry and you gave me food” (v35), (6) how could abraham’s faith be “complete” (v22), which means “to be made perfect” (eteleiothe), if his justification were merely before sight of men, it has to be complete before God.

Controlling verse of romans 2 to show it’s moral laws specifically is v13-15

Obj: Romans 2:12 “all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law” = jews who keep torah apart from 10 commands needs to keep entire torah to be saved

Ans: (1) not necessarily, could be that jews sinned under written law will be judged by written law. Gentiles are those who “have sinned without the law [who] will also perish without the law” that’s why he says, “When Gentiles who have not the law do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves.” could be about 10 written commandments (2) if we take the obj inspiration then we say then the gentiles who keep the laws are also justified

Arg: romans 2:13 “doers of the law who will be justified”. And we know this is at least 10 commandments because moral law that is binding on jews and gentiles, which is “written on their hearts” (v15). Distinguishing ceremonial and civil laws are not written on anyone’s hearts but only moral laws are written.

Arg: we know romans 2 is about moral laws again bc v 21-22 “stealing” “adultery” “idols”

Obj: “When Gentiles who have not the law” (rom 2:14) And “All who have sinned without the law” (rom 2:12) = not the 10 commandment laws? 

Ans: could be that gentiles don’t have 10 commandments in the sense of being entrusted with the oracles of god (romans 3:2) on papari but at least is “written on their hearts” (v15). OR could be talking about sinning without or “have not the law” in the sense of before moses delivered 10 commandments

Obj: “under the law” (romans 3:19) is contextualized by “no human being will be justified in his sight by works of the law” (Romans 3:20). So works of the law is 10 commandments just as argued above, but if so then works of the law (10 commands) don’t justify.

Ans: “under the law” (romans 3:19) is not commandment but is ceremonial. Same wording of “under the law” from romans 2 and romans 3 doesn’t mean same content of what kind of law. Just as james 2:24 doesn’t contradict romans 3:28—look at context and see romans 2 deals w moral laws and romans 3 deal w ceremonial laws.

Obj: romans 3:19: “whole world may be held accountable to God” = moral laws, not ceremonial laws

Ans: contextualized by v30: “he will justify the circumcised [Jews] on the ground of their faith and the uncircumcised [Gentiles] through their faith”--this is the “whole world.” whole world accountable in the sense of faith, doesn’t say accountable in the sense of apart from moral law.

Obj: too many shifts in torah vs moral law

Ans: just as protestants think there are shifts (e.g. Romans 3:5 connected with romans 9:23, way later on)

Arg: v25 is still talking about moral law bc (1) he makes a distinction between circumcision, which is a ceremonial law, and “obey the [moral] law.” also, (2) it’s the moral law bc “real circumcision is a matter of the heart” (v29) hearkening back to v15.

Obj: “written code and circumcision” (romans 2:27) is “written code” (romans 7:6), which is 10 commandments “adulteress” (romans 7:3). 

Ans: romans 7:1-3 talks about moral law yes but v4 says, “Likewise” indicating it’s analogy, that’s why we say “we are discharged from the law” (v6). We can’t say we’re discharged from the 10 commandments otherwise that means we don’t keep it.

Arg: romans 3:4: “justified in thy words” = not by faith alone

Controlling verse of romans 3 = v29 “Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also”

Obj: Romans 4:2 talks about good works “if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God”

Ans: no, that’s why he mentions “Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh [circumcision]” = about circumcision, not good works

Obj: “Now to one who works, his wages are not reckoned as a gift but as his due” (romans 4:4) RCC wants to say that man receives his due through good works, so that’s context.

Ans: true that man receives his due thru good works, but that includes for those under ceremonial law, who receive their due as well = doesn’t refute this being about ceremonial laws

Arg: confession is not a work of the law bc “David pronounces a blessing upon the man to whom God reckons righteousness apart from works” (romans 4:6) then quotes psalms 32 right after, wherein there’s confession of david. Meaning confession is not work of law

Controlling verse of romans 4 is v9 and v10: “Is this blessing pronounced only upon the circumcised, or also upon the uncircumcised?” (romans 4:9) “How then was it reckoned to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised” (romans 4:10). “The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised [all who believe without works]” (romans 4:11)

Romans 4 interpretation: abraham not justified by works in the sense of “a gift” (v4) whereas james is talking bout “his due,” hence james mentions “Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar” (James 2:21). These are two senses of salvation. Romans 4 is about initial salvation but james 2 is about the continuance of salvation

Arg: david is blessed man (and consequently, justified man) of romans 4:7-8 when he confessed of his sins. But he was already righteous before his murder and adultery, so he was already justified prior to adultery and murder. He confessed and was justified because he lost justification through sins. David in his adultery and murder was “godly” (romans 4:5), hence paul says, “So also David…” (romans 4:6). The point of romans 4 being about david is that it shows justification is not only a one time thing but is also a process. Hence, david had it then lost it then got it again.

Obj: Jared seems to say that Roman’s 5:2 has Greek word of ‘hope’ [of sharing in the glory of God] being stronger than just a “hope I’ll pass my exam” sense. But the hope in the Greek means expectation, anticipation, trust, or confidence. Jared seems to want to say it means confidence but that’s not the only possibility, it could mean as how we say about the exam. And even if it means confidence–that’s still consistent with the exam

Romans 5:13 & 20 “law” is talking about moses’s law bc (1) Therefore as sin…(v1), (2) “sin is not counted where there is no law” (v13) “Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses (who gave the law), (3) “much more have the grace of God” (15) showing that if sin caused death to enter even though sin’s not counted, then much more does jesus abound for us wherein sin’s not counted

Romans 8:28-30 those who love him and called according to his purpose. God foreknows everyone but not everyone saved. So this is a specific group of those foreknown who persevere until end. 

Possible interpretation is that not all called according to his purpose but all are called. “Those” called to his purpose are persevering until end. 

Protestants have restrict meaning of those foreknown so it’s possible that this restricted meaning of those called are only some believers

Obj: But god foreknew and called everyone

Ans: reductio: then everyone’s saved

Obj: foreknown are those only persevering until end

Ans: agree

Obj: all true believers are all called/foreknown

Ans: assumption. Possible that some true believers fall away and some true believers persevere, such as some are called but not chosen, other called and chosen (Matthew 22:14)

Obj: those who love him are all true believers but not false believers

Ans: assumption. Maybe not all believers persevere. Could love for awhile but stray.

John 10

Obj: Catholicism anathematize Protestants sola fide

Ans: not simple. Canon 9 says, “If anyone says that the sinner is justified by faith alone, meaning that [1] nothing else is required to cooperate in order to obtain the grace of justification, and [2] that it is not in any way necessary that he be prepared and disposed by the action of his own will, let him be anathema.” 

This cooperation is faith to obtain grace of justification. No faith means no obtaining grace of justification. His preparation and disposition of the will needs to freely respond to God’s grace.

Protestants agree with these 2 points.

“Together we confess: By grace alone, in faith in Christ’s saving work and not because of any merit on our part, we are accepted by God and receive the Holy Spirit, who renews our hearts while equipping and calling us to good works” (1997 JD Lutheran World Federation and Catholic CDF)

Obj: Bob, the true believer who gets smited without chance of confession while in act of adultery is saved

Ans: Ezekiel 18:26–27 (RSVCE): When a righteous man turns away from his righteousness and commits iniquity, he shall die for it; for the iniquity which he has committed he shall die. 27 Again, when a wicked man turns away from the wickedness he has committed and does what is lawful and right, he shall save his life

Eternal security//once saved always saved

Council of Trent “CANON XXVI.-If any one saith, that the just ought not, for their good works done in God, to expect and hope for an eternal recompense from God, through His mercy and the merit of Jesus Christ, if so be that they persevere to the end in well doing and in keeping the divine commandments; let him be anathema.”

Council of trent “CANON XVI.-If any one saith, that he will for certain, of an absolute and infallible certainty, have that great gift of perseverance unto the end,-unless he have learned this by special revelation; let him be anathema.”

Arg 1: If the definition of a Christian is a person who cannot lose their salvation, then we can never be sure or we could never know that we are that person because the end of our lives has not happened yet

Arg 2: Matthew 18 parable of the unforgiving servant

Obj: John 10:27-29

Ans: being a sheep alone doesn’t guarantee salvation bc the sheep can stray (matthew 18:12)

Synergism: James 2:22 LSB [RSV and ESV translates perfected as completed: “You see that faith *was working with* [Greek: synērgei] his works, and as a result of the works, faith was perfected [eteleiōthē].”

Q: Does doing good works perfect your faith?

A: No

R: James 2:22 says yes.

justification as a process versus one-time thing:

Scriptural evidence

Romans 2:13 – “The doers of the law who will be justified.”

Galatians 5:5 – “We wait for the hope of righteousness [or justification].” 

(from Jimmy Akin's book on the Drama of Salvation):

“We see, therefore, that Abraham was justified on at least three different occasions:
• in Genesis 12, when he first left Haran and went to the promised land;
• in Genesis 15, when he believed the promise concerning his descendants;
• and in Genesis 22, when he offered his promised son on the altar.”
(p. 126)

He concludes:

“If justification is a once-for-all event rather than a process, that means that Abraham could not receive justification either before or after Genesis 15:6. However, Scripture indicates that he did both.”
(p. 125–126)

1. “Just as Abraham received justification before Genesis 15:6, he also received it afterward, as we read in the book of James:‘Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar?’ (James 2:21).” 

Luther wrote:

• “[W]e perceive that a man who is justified is not yet a righteous man, but is in the very movement or journey toward righteousness" (Disputation on Justification, thesis 23, in Luther’s Works 34:152)
• “[O]ur justification is not yet complete. . . . It is still under construction. It shall, however, be completed in the resurrection of the dead" (D. Martin Luthers Werke. Kritische Gesamtausabe (Weimar, 1883), 39I:252 (cited in Althaus, 237 n. 63)).

“The ultimate courtroom declaration does not occur until the believer stands before God, at death in the particular judgment and at the end of the world in the final judgment.”
(Jimmy Akin's book on the Drama of Salvation, p. 125)

OBJ: [1] there are verses only prove that there are multiple moments of justification but they do not prove increase in justification/righteousness. [2] And many verses Catholics provide are in reference to sanctification, not justification.

ANS: Since justification and sanctification are sometimes used interchangeably in Scripture, the process of sanctification can be seen as an increase in justification.

• 1 Corinthians 6:11: "And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God"
• Hebrews 10:10 – Sanctified “Once for All” = Justified “Once for All”
• Verse: “By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.”
• Akin’s point:

• • 1. Elsewhere (e.g. Romans 5:9) Paul says we are justified by Christ’s one-time atoning death.

    2. Here the author of Hebrews uses the term “sanctified” (ἡγιασμένοι/hēgiasmenoi) of that same single offering.

    3. The parallel contexts show that “sanctified” and “justified” are being used synonymously—both pointing to the same once-for-all saving act of Christ.